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David Watson 🥑
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Nice! But there's no advantage to drawing R from a Gaussian versus fixing it at zero, right (absent information about how the numbers on the cards are generated)?
A fixed number won’t work because it doesn’t have some non-zero probability of always falling between any two numbers, which is what guarantees the edge.
I think the best intuition of Monty Hall comes from the 100 door variant. You choose a door, 1/100 you’re right. Monty opens 98 doors leaving one left and yours. With 100 doors you can sense that Monty is concentrating the remaining probability mass onto that one door, so switch.
The guaranteed improvement hinges on being able to draw from distribution with unbounded support. I guess it’s questionable whether that is literally possible to do in finite time? (from my understanding random number generators are likely to technically not be unbounded)
The arithmetic checks out, but how do you shake the brute intuition that a random process totally disconnected from the game shouldn’t be able to give you any useful information about it?
I believe any monotonically decreasing function p(n), that spits out the probability you switch as a function of the number you see, will do better than 50/50. (The higher the number you see, the less likely you are to switch.) A simple one is switch with 1/number probability. So
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The worst thing about this is that if you tried it in reality it would work, but that's because humans have the same shortcoming as this proof: being unable to actually construct infinite uniform distributions. (Skip the complex math and just roll again if it's intuitively low)
𝙏𝙝𝙚 𝘾𝙖𝙪𝙩𝙞𝙤𝙪𝙨 𝘾𝙖𝙨𝙚 𝙁𝙤𝙧 𝙃𝙖𝙧𝙧𝙞𝙨 𝘈 𝘒𝘢𝘮𝘢𝘭𝘢 𝘏𝘢𝘳𝘳𝘪𝘴 𝘱𝘳𝘦𝘴𝘪𝘥𝘦𝘯𝘤𝘺 𝘸𝘪𝘭𝘭 𝘯𝘰𝘵 𝘧𝘶𝘯𝘥𝘢𝘮𝘦𝘯𝘵𝘢𝘭𝘭𝘺 𝘤𝘩𝘢𝘯𝘨𝘦 𝘵𝘩𝘦 𝘯𝘦𝘰-𝘭𝘪𝘣𝘦𝘳𝘢𝘭 𝘴𝘵𝘢𝘵𝘶𝘴 𝘲𝘶𝘰, 𝘣𝘶𝘵 𝘸𝘩𝘢𝘵 𝘸𝘪𝘯𝘴 𝘤𝘢𝘯 𝘸𝘦 𝘨𝘦𝘵?
Important note that there’s nothing special about the Gaussian distribution here. You could use any distribution that assigns a positive probability to every real interval, such as the logistic distribution.
If the numbers can be any numbers, and we don't know anything about their distribution (and cannot deduce anything since we observe only one number), the probability that any random number is between hidden numbers is zero.
I don't get it. Supposing the generating process is to pick a random number N from the reals as the first and pick N - 1 as the second. Isn't P(N > R > N - 1) = 0?
The specific amount of benefit you get might take some thought but “can you add literally even a tiny bit of edge to an already 50/50 baseline?” is intuitive enough for this solution to make sense!
This relies on finite distributions of random numbers. If you assume uniform random, then as your min and max values approach -infinity and infinity, 1-p-q would approach zero. Therefore, this is saying more about the choice of distributions than anything else.
If this works it violates your premise of complete unknown-ness, no? Any Gaussian you choose ought to have 0% overlap with any (arguably coherent) uniform distribution over the integers.
the advantage rests on: that numbers the examiner chose is “likely” to be near a number R that I would choose, right? Like if the examiner can choose any real then you’re screwed because it’s infinitesimally likely that you will chose R such that it is between the two numbers
If they can generate any two random numbers (with absolutely no limitations) but I am limited to what number I can express given limited resources, it seems I can't effectively (with probability greater than ε) generate and evaluate a number between two such numbers.
If you didn't specify "two different numbers" then having unknown x_1 = x_2 would make the method a waste of time. "Two different numbers" puts enough constraint on the unknowns x_1 and x_2 so I'm not surprised this "works".
Referring to the quanta solution: Since A, B and G are unbounded, the probability of G being between A & B is infinitesimally small. Seems like a flaw in the argument (when expressed in terms of limits).
wait ok maybe i'm just not understanding how this works "pick any R in a gaussian distribution" is this assuming you already know the distribution of possible numbers you can get? in that case it seems like it's way easier to get it 50% of the time? what am i missing
This is great but what parameters do you pick for the Gaussian distribution where you generate R? If you assume the numbers generated on the two paper slips is bounded between 0 and N, the probability of that strategy winning approaches 50% as N approaches infinity.
wait, but is there a way to actually generate a random number over the entire gaussian distribution? this casually says "use a computer" but I think if you aren't sampling over the infinite range the math breaks down again
Being curious, but not good at higher maths I had ChatGPT create code that I could run to test on a range between 0-1000000. Running it 100,000 times produced 69.555% success. Changing the logic to keep the first envelope when it’s above the mean yielded 69.357% success. 🤷
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A long time ago I almost convinced myself extend that this strategy could be extended to the German tank problem with n=1. It can't though. I think.
Pretty sure this has the same winrate (75%) as just switching or staying respectively when the first card is less than or greater than the median.
The real hidden info you're guessing in this problem isn't the numbers on the paper, but the range in which they were generated. Given that it's a person asking it and not a computer, and the numbers must be written on slips of paper, one can assume a small-ish range.
I had to solve this on an exam once and had never seen it before. Didn't know it was famous, so I just solved it exactly like this.
This is contingent on the idea that the set of ways to generate random bounded numbers is a equally large infinity to the set of ways to generate a random unbounded number
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It is not possible to generate unbounded numbers. So surely this could only work if for generating each number we assume the same limit of computational effort (including duration). Because only then can the numbers have the same bound.
But isn't this purely theoretical? It's not possible to actually select a random number from a gaussian distribution over all real numbers, is it?
There’s an infinite number of generating distributions and an infinitesimally small number give an advantage that is not infinitesimally small. It’s a limit that approaches 0.5 from the right
That's funny, because a method where you're looking at the revealed number and deciding, you probably have an implicit number as r, even if you choose r after anchoring to the revealed number.
Except if you don’t know anything about the numbers this fails because your probability of picking a Gaussian that encompasses both numbers is 0 given the vast number line
Super interesting how you use outside data points to create an instance for applying stopping theory.
The solution only works if you have a bounded range of numbers. To have a gaussian distribution you need a finite set. If you have a set like the integers then there is no gaussian distribution for what you can apply this solution